ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):
- A. Neutralization
- B. Agglutination
- C. Precipitation
- D. Phagocytosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.
2. A patient's antiretroviral therapy has not been as efficacious as her care team had predicted, and maraviroc (Selzentry) has consequently been added to her drug regimen. The nurse should recognize this drug as belonging to what category of antiretroviral?
- A. Fusion protein inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. CCR5 antagonists
- D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Women with a history of breast cancer should avoid hormone replacement therapy due to the increased risk of cancer recurrence.
3. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?
- A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
- B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
- C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
- D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.
4. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
5. When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:
- A. A reduced immune response found in most pathologic states
- B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent
- C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
- D. Antigenic desensitization
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypersensitivity is correctly defined as an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. This response leads to tissue damage or other clinical manifestations. Choice A is incorrect as hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated, not a reduced, immune response. Choice B is incorrect because hypersensitivity is not a normal immune response to an infectious agent but rather an exaggerated one. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to desensitization, which is the opposite of hypersensitivity.
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