at the end of the practical nurse course the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.

2. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and needed equipment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Dental squad. This squad is specifically composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and necessary equipment. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not include the specific group of specialists mentioned in the question. Therefore, they are incorrect. The Treatment squad may involve a broader range of medical professionals, while the Area support squad and Medical service squad focus on different aspects of healthcare support not related to the dental field.

3. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork due to religious dietary restrictions. Providing snacks between meals (choice A) is not specifically related to the dietary needs of this client. While removing coffee from the breakfast tray (choice C) aligns with the client's dietary restrictions, ensuring no pork on the dinner tray (choice D) is redundant as it is already covered in the correct answer. Therefore, choices C and D are not necessary to include as separate options.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

5. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

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