ATI RN
ATI Mental Health
1. Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hot flashes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Symptoms of a panic attack include shortness of breath, dizziness, and hot flashes. Chest pain is not a common symptom of a panic attack but can be present in some cases. Euphoria is not typically associated with panic attacks.
2. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?
- A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
- B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
- C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
- D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.
3. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
4. A client has ordered a thrombolytic medication for the treatment of CVA. Which type of stroke should not be treated with a thrombolytic?
- A. Hemorrhagic stroke
- B. Thrombotic stroke
- C. Both types can be treated with a thrombolytic
- D. Neither type can be treated with a thrombolytic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thrombolytic medications are used to dissolve blood clots. In the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, where there is bleeding in the brain, the use of thrombolytics can worsen the condition by increasing bleeding. Therefore, hemorrhagic strokes should not be treated with thrombolytic medications.
5. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.
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