Nursing Elites

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.

3. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Black-colored stools
• C. Staining of teeth
• D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

4. A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect.
• B. Check the value of the client's current platelet count.
• C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush.
• D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

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