at what amount does acetaminophen stop controlling pain
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.

3. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

4. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.

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