Nursing Elites

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. A client has a new prescription for Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) injections. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• B. I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms improve.
• C. I should take this medication with food.
• D. I will need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may need to take cyanocobalamin for life to prevent deficiency. It is a lifelong treatment in many cases to maintain adequate B12 levels. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms improve may lead to a relapse of the deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as cyanocobalamin injections are usually administered on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking cyanocobalamin; in fact, these vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin B12.

3. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

4. In which patient could the drug Senna potentially be indicated?

• A. A patient with an eating disorder
• B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
• C. A patient with anal fissures
• D. A patient with a history of hemorrhoids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to treat constipation by stimulating bowel movements. It is typically indicated for patients who have not passed stool in several days, thereby helping to relieve constipation. Patients with eating disorders may require different treatments related to their condition. Patients with anal fissures or a history of hemorrhoids may need treatments targeted at those specific issues, which may not involve Senna.

5. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Decreased libido
• D. B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.

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