Nursing Elites

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?

• A. Dairy products
• B. Alcohol
• C. Leafy green vegetables
• D. Grapefruit juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms like flushing, headache, nausea, and vomiting when alcohol is consumed while on metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole. Dairy products do not interfere with metronidazole absorption; leafy green vegetables are safe to consume as they do not affect metronidazole metabolism, and grapefruit juice is not contraindicated with metronidazole.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am constipated frequently.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.

5. A client is starting a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Rise slowly from a sitting position.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting enalapril is to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes may contain potassium, which could lead to elevated potassium levels when combined with enalapril, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific need to take enalapril with food, rise slowly from a sitting position, or avoid exposure to sunlight when taking this medication.

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