Nursing Elites

1. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?

• A. 30-33 weeks after conception
• B. 34-36 weeks after conception
• C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
• D. 37-40 weeks after conception

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.

2. After administering Gardasil, the HPV vaccine, to an 11-year-old girl, the healthcare provider informs the parent that routine screening with which diagnostic test is needed?

• A. Beta hCG
• B. Chlamydia test
• C. PAP test
• D. Mammogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following the administration of Gardasil, the HPV vaccine, routine screening with a PAP test is necessary. While Gardasil protects against certain types of HPV, it does not cover all strains that could lead to cervical cancer. Therefore, individuals who have received the vaccine should still undergo regular PAP tests to screen for cervical abnormalities caused by other HPV strains.

3. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

4. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
• B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
• C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
• D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�

Correct answer: D

Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.

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