Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

2. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?

• A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
• B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
• C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
• D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.

3. Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?

• A. Unusual responses to sensory input
• B. Social isolation
• C. Repetitive behaviors
• D. Delayed motor development

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.

4. Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of using an occupation-centered practice model?

• A. Addresses the unique value of occupation
• B. Provides intervention protocols
• C. Provides specific intervention activities
• D. Addresses children's limitations in skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An occupation-centered practice model focuses on the unique value of engaging in meaningful and purposeful activities, known as occupations. By addressing the significance of occupation in an individual's life, this model emphasizes the importance of activities that hold personal meaning and relevance. Understanding and incorporating the value of occupation can lead to more client-centered and holistic interventions that promote health and well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the model emphasizes the value of occupations, not just intervention protocols. Choice C is incorrect as the model is centered around the value of occupations, not just specific intervention activities. Choice D is incorrect as the model is not primarily focused on addressing children's limitations in skills, but rather on the significance of engaging in meaningful activities.

5. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

• A. Periorbital ecchymosis
• B. Subdural hematoma
• C. Protruding bone
• D. Epidural hematoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

Similar Questions