ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
- A. 440
- B. 400
- C. 410
- D. 450
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.
2. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?
- A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
- B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
- C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
- D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.
3. Which question provides information regarding a child's community mobility?
- A. What is the level of supervision provided?
- B. Can the child leave the house and play with friends?
- C. Is the child being bullied?
- D. Is there equipment available so the child can play with peers?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B directly assesses the child's community mobility by inquiring about their ability to leave the house and engage in play activities with friends. Community mobility involves the child's independence in social and recreational activities outside the home, making this question crucial for understanding their daily functioning and autonomy.
4. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?
- A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
- B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
- C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
- D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.
5. A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?
- A. Decreased protein count
- B. Clear, straw-colored fluid
- C. Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
- D. Decreased glucose level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is typically decreased due to the increased utilization of glucose by the infecting bacteria. This metabolic change leads to a decrease in CSF glucose levels, making choice D the correct answer in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bacterial meningitis usually results in an increased protein count, cloudy appearance of the CSF due to the presence of bacteria, and absence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the CSF unless there is a traumatic tap, respectively.
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