Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

2. A patient from the oncology unit asks the nurse about metastasis. Which of the following statements by the nurse requires immediate intervention by the head nurse?

• A. Metastasis is the replication of cells
• B. Metastasis can happen in most parts of the body
• C. The replication of cancer cells and travel from one area to another
• D. Metastasis is the spread of cancer cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells to distant parts of the body, not the replication of cells. Choice B is correct as metastasis can indeed occur in various body parts. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately combines the concepts of replication and travel of cancer cells. Choice D is also correct as it accurately defines metastasis as the spread of cancer cells.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. A client has a platelet count of 9800/mm3. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client for calf pain, warmth, and redness.
• B. Instruct the client to call for help to get out of bed.
• C. Obtain cultures as per the facility’s standing policy.
• D. Place the client on protective Isolation Precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count of 9800/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk for bleeding, even with minor trauma or injury. Instructing the client to call for help before getting out of bed ensures they receive assistance with mobility, which reduces the risk of falls or injuries that could lead to serious bleeding. Preventing any activity that could result in trauma is crucial when managing clients with very low platelet counts.

5. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Risk for bleeding
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.

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