Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

2. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

3. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?

• A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice, which is often associated with liver disease. Liver function tests (LFTs) help in evaluating liver health and function. A complete blood count (CBC) primarily assesses red and white blood cells and platelets, not directly related to jaundice. Platelet count specifically measures platelets in the blood and is unrelated to the yellow skin observed in this patient. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine tests focus on kidney function, not typically associated with yellow skin, making them less relevant in this context.

4. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Adjust the dose based on the patient's present symptoms.
• B. Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser before and after administration.
• C. Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing and administering the medication.
• D. Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle. Antineoplastic agents are hazardous materials, and proper disposal is crucial to prevent harm to individuals and the environment. Option A is incorrect because adjusting the dose based on the patient's present symptoms may not be safe without proper authorization. Option B is incorrect as hand hygiene should be performed both before and after administering medications. Option C is incorrect as gloves and a lab coat should be worn primarily during handling and administration, not just during preparation.

5. The nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a client who has returned from the operating room following an abdominal perineal resection and notes serosanguineous drainage from the wound. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Clamp the Penrose drain.
• B. Change the dressing as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP).
• D. Remove and replace the perineal packing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate nursing intervention for serosanguineous drainage from the wound is to change the dressing as prescribed. This helps in maintaining wound cleanliness, preventing infection, and promoting proper wound healing. Clamping the Penrose drain (Choice A) is not indicated as the drainage is from the wound itself, not the drain. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary if there are signs of infection or other concerning issues, but changing the dressing should be done first. Removing and replacing the perineal packing (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider after assessing the wound.

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