Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?

• A. Monitoring for infection
• B. Monitoring nutritional status
• C. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• D. Monitoring liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is usually infection or bleeding. By closely monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, altered mental status, or elevated white blood cell count, healthcare providers can intervene promptly. Monitoring nutritional status (choice B) is important but does not directly address the most common cause of death among leukemia patients. Monitoring electrolyte levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments in cancer patients; however, they are not the most direct assessment to address the leading cause of death in patients with leukemia.

3. A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

• A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
• B. Palliative care is only provided when curative treatment is no longer an option.
• C. Palliative care includes interventions to prolong life at all costs.
• D. Palliative care provides support for both the client and their family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma and includes which priority intervention in the plan?

• A. Encouraging fluids
• B. Providing frequent oral care
• C. Coughing and deep breathing
• D. Monitoring the red blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encouraging fluids. In a client with multiple myeloma, encouraging fluids is a priority intervention to prevent kidney damage from high calcium levels. Adequate hydration helps maintain renal function and prevents complications. Providing frequent oral care (Choice B) is essential for clients at risk of mucositis or oral infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. Coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice C) are commonly used for clients at risk of respiratory complications, like postoperative patients. Monitoring the red blood cell count (Choice D) is important for conditions like anemia but is not the priority in a client with multiple myeloma, where fluid management is crucial.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

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