ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
- A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
- B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
- C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
- D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.
2. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?
- A. Labyrinthitis
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Decreased bone density
- D. Hypercoagulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
- B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
- C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
- D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.
4. What is a characteristic of normal cells?
- A. They have no functions
- B. They have a larger nucleus
- C. They undergo apoptosis
- D. They have a dark-colored nucleus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that normal cells undergo apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis. Choice A is incorrect as normal cells do have specific functions. Choice B is incorrect as the size of the nucleus may vary but is not a defining characteristic of normal cells. Choice D is incorrect as the color of the nucleus is not a standard characteristic of normal cells.
5. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?
- A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
- B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
- C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
- D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access