Nursing Elites

1. Are M6 practical nurses utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. -
• D. -

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, M6 practical nurses are utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities. They play a crucial role in providing care and support in these settings. Choice B is incorrect as M6 practical nurses are indeed utilized in such field units, as stated in the extract. Choices C and D are not applicable as the correct answer is 'Yes.'

2. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

3. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

4. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes soiled
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with water after collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.

5. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

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