Nursing Elites

1. Annebell is being discharged with a colostomy, and you’re teaching her about colostomy care. Which statement correctly describes a healthy stoma?

• A. At first, the stoma may bleed slightly when touched.
• B. The stoma should appear dark and have a bluish hue.
• C. A burning sensation under the stoma faceplate is normal.
• D. The stoma should remain swollen away from the abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A healthy stoma may bleed slightly when touched initially, which is normal.

2. A patient has an acute upper GI hemorrhage. Your interventions include:

• A. Treating hypovolemia.
• B. Treating hypervolemia.
• C. Controlling the bleeding source.
• D. Treating shock and diagnosing the bleeding source.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with an acute upper GI hemorrhage, your interventions include treating shock and diagnosing the bleeding source.

3. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn’s disease?

• A. Bloody diarrhea
• B. Narrow stools
• C. N/V
• D. Steatorrhea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool.

4. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is a Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. Propranolol (Inderal) is a B- adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.

5. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

Similar Questions