Nursing Elites

1. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

• A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
• B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
• C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
• D. Invading healthy host tissues

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

2. A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity?

• A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
• B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
• C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
• D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients undergoing consolidation therapy for leukemia, severe fatigue is a common side effect of treatment due to factors such as anemia, decreased nutritional intake, and the body’s response to chemotherapy. While exercise is beneficial, the patient's fatigue may limit their ability to engage in strenuous activity. Assisting the patient to sit in a chair during awake times is a practical way to encourage some physical activity while respecting their fatigue levels. This intervention helps prevent complications associated with immobility, such as muscle atrophy and venous stasis, without overwhelming the patient. It allows the patient to engage in light activity that is manageable and promotes recovery.

3. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

4. A client with breast cancer is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin). The nurse monitors the client closely for:

• A. Pulmonary fibrosis
• B. Cardiotoxicity
• C. Hepatotoxicity
• D. Nephrotoxicity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) is an anthracycline chemotherapy agent commonly used to treat various cancers, including breast cancer. One of the significant side effects associated with doxorubicin is cardiotoxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as heart failure and arrhythmias. The risk of cardiotoxicity is dose-dependent, meaning that higher cumulative doses increase the likelihood of cardiac damage. Therefore, it is essential for nurses to monitor cardiac function closely through assessments such as echocardiograms or monitoring for signs and symptoms of heart failure, such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and edema.

5. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

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