ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?
- A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
- B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
- C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
- D. Invading healthy host tissues
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.
3. By which age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position?
- A. 5 to 6 months
- B. 7 to 8 months
- C. 11 to 12 months
- D. 14 to 15 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pulling to a standing position typically occurs between 11 to 12 months, marking the progression towards walking.
4. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.
5. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should be included in the teaching? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Progressive muscle relaxation
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Cognitive restructuring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns, not specifically a relaxation technique. Therefore, choice D, cognitive restructuring, does not apply to relaxation techniques for managing anxiety.
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