Nursing Elites

1. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperproteinemia
• C. Elevated serum viscosity
• D. Elevated RBC count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

2. A patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce this risk?

• A. Encouraging bed rest
• B. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury
• C. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises
• D. Ensuring adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Promoting bed rest to avoid injury.' In patients with multiple myeloma undergoing chemotherapy, encouraging bed rest can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, increasing the risk of fractures. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury means advising the patient on safe movement and activities to prevent fractures. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises (choice C) would be more beneficial than bed rest as it helps in maintaining bone density and strength. Ensuring adequate hydration (choice D) is essential for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bone fractures associated with multiple myeloma and chemotherapy. Choice A, 'Encouraging bed rest,' is incorrect as it may worsen the risk of fractures rather than reduce it.

3. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

• A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
• B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
• C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Tumor lysis syndrome is a potential complication after treatment for certain cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The rapid breakdown of cancer cells in response to treatment can lead to metabolic abnormalities, such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia, which can be life-threatening. Choice B, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), is not typically associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice C, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is more commonly seen in conditions such as sepsis or trauma, not directly related to non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common complication following treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased uric acid level
• B. Increased serum potassium level
• C. Increased serum sodium level
• D. Increased fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

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