Nursing Elites

1. An intravenous line is needed in a school-age child. What medication is an appropriate analgesic for use with this patient?

• A. TAC (tetracaine, epinephrine [Adrenalin], cocaine) 15 minutes before the procedure.
• B. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch at the site of venipuncture.
• C. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) immediately before the procedure.
• D. LMX (4% liposomal lidocaine cream) 30 minutes before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: LMX is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin 30 minutes before a procedure. It eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture. TAC provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin, making it more suitable for wound suturing. Transdermal fentanyl patches are designed for continuous pain control, not rapid pain control needed for a procedure like venipuncture. EMLA, for maximum effectiveness, must be applied approximately 60 minutes before the procedure, making it less suitable for immediate pain relief required for intravenous line placement.

2. What is the typical presentation of pyloric stenosis in infants?

• A. Bilious vomiting
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Blood in stools
• D. Failure to thrive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projectile vomiting. Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with projectile vomiting, which is forceful and projective in nature. This occurs due to the obstruction at the pylorus, leading to the stomach being unable to empty properly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Bilious vomiting is more commonly associated with intestinal obstruction, blood in stools can occur in conditions such as necrotizing enterocolitis or allergic colitis, and failure to thrive is a nonspecific finding that can be seen in various pediatric conditions.

3. What is the most common complication following surgical correction of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula in infants?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Stricture formation
• D. Aspiration pneumonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common complication following surgical correction of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula in infants is stricture formation. This complication occurs due to the healing process after surgery, leading to the narrowing of the esophagus. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) can be a concern but is not the most common complication. Respiratory distress (Choice B) may happen but is not the primary complication. Aspiration pneumonia (Choice D) is a risk but is typically not as common as stricture formation in these cases.

4. A 13-year-old boy comes to the school nurse complaining of sudden and severe scrotal pain. He denies any trauma to the scrotum. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Refer him for immediate medical evaluation
• B. Administer analgesics and recommend scrotal support.
• C. Apply an ice bag and observe for increasing pain.
• D. Reassure the adolescent that occasional pain is common with the changes of puberty.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sudden and severe scrotal pain in an adolescent male is a medical emergency and may indicate testicular torsion, which requires immediate evaluation and intervention to prevent testicular loss.

5. A father calls the clinic because he found his young daughter squirting Visine eyedrops into her mouth. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Reassure the father that Visine is harmless.
• B. Direct him to seek immediate medical treatment.
• C. Recommend inducing vomiting with ipecac.
• D. Advise him to dilute Visine by giving his daughter several glasses of water to drink.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Visine is not harmless when ingested, and immediate medical treatment is necessary due to the risk of toxicity. Vomiting should not be induced without medical advice, and dilution with water is not an appropriate treatment.

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