Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old child, previously potty-trained, becomes a bed-wetter again during a hospital stay. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. “Your child is no longer potty-trained and will need to be retrained when she goes home.”
• B. “The child may have developed a bladder infection in the hospital. I will notify the doctor.”
• C. “Preschool children may regress in their behaviors when they are ill in the hospital but should return to normal when they go back home.”
• D. “Don’t worry about it, she is fine.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a hospital stay, preschool children may exhibit regression in behaviors such as bed-wetting due to stress. It is important for parents to understand that this behavior is a common response to the hospital environment and should resolve once the child is back home. Therefore, the correct explanation for the nurse to provide to the parents is choice C. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the child is no longer potty-trained. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a medical issue without evidence. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' concerns without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

2. Identification and treatment of cryptorchid testes should be done by age 2 years. What is an important consideration?

• A. Medical therapy is not effective after this age.
• B. Treatment is necessary to maintain the ability to be fertile when older.
• C. The younger child can tolerate the extensive surgery needed.
• D. Sexual reassignment may be necessary if treatment is not successful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early treatment of cryptorchidism is essential to preserve fertility and prevent complications such as testicular cancer. Surgery is usually well-tolerated, and sexual reassignment is not typically related to this condition.

3. The nurse is assessing a 3-day-old breastfed newborn who weighed 3400 g (7 pounds, 8 oz) at birth. The infant’s mother is now concerned because the infant weighs 3147 g (6 pounds, 15 oz). The most appropriate nursing intervention is what?

• A. Recommend supplemental feedings of formula.
• B. Explain that this weight loss is within normal limits.
• C. Assess the child further to determine the cause of excessive weight loss.
• D. Encourage the mother to express breast milk for bottle-feeding the infant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A neonate normally loses about 10% of the birth weight by age 3 to 4 days. The birth weight is usually regained by the 10th day of life. In this case, the weight loss from 3400 g to 3147 g is within the expected range. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to explain to the mother that this weight loss is within normal limits. Choice A is incorrect because supplemental feedings of formula are not indicated for this expected weight loss in a breastfed newborn. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest excessive weight loss at this point. Choice D is unnecessary at this stage and may not align with the current situation of normal weight loss post-birth.

4. A parent brings their 2-year-old son in for a well visit. The nurse assesses his growth since the last appointment. Which finding should concern the nurse?

• A. Prominent abdomen
• B. Forward curve of the spine in the sacral area
• C. Increase in height of 5 inches in the past year
• D. Total weight gain of 15 lb in the past year

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A total weight gain of 15 lb in one year for a 2-year-old is excessive and may indicate an underlying issue such as a metabolic disorder or overfeeding. This rapid weight gain can put the child at risk for health problems. Choices A, B, and C are not typically concerning findings in a 2-year-old. A prominent abdomen can be normal at this age due to a toddler's slightly protruding belly, a forward curve of the spine at the sacral area is a typical finding in young children, and an increase in height of 5 inches in a year is within the expected range of growth for a 2-year-old.

5. A sixteen-year-old boy is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. What information should the nurse know regarding the treatment plan?

• A. Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary.
• B. Intensive radiation is the primary treatment modality.
• C. Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy.
• D. Bone marrow transplantation is the preferred option for long-term survival.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is typically treated with a combination of surgery and chemotherapy. This approach aims to remove the tumor and reduce the risk of metastasis. Amputation of the affected extremity may be necessary in some cases to ensure complete removal of the tumor. Intensive radiation is not the primary treatment for osteosarcoma, and bone marrow transplantation is not the standard treatment for this type of cancer.

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