ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?
- A. The individual assertively confronts the boss
- B. The individual leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym
- C. The individual criticizes a coworker
- D. The individual takes the boss out to lunch
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.
2. Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Sexual dysfunction
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a commonly reported side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs can affect sexual function by causing issues such as decreased libido, delayed ejaculation, erectile dysfunction, or anorgasmia. Patients should be educated about these potential side effects when starting SSRIs to facilitate informed decision-making and appropriate management strategies. Incorrect Choices: A) Hypotension is not a common side effect of SSRIs. C) Increased appetite is not a common side effect of SSRIs. D) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of SSRIs.
3. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
4. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
- A. Genetics have no influence on your temperament.
- B. How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.
- C. Maintaining good physical health always keeps stress levels low.
- D. Stress can be avoided by using appropriate coping mechanisms.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.
5. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?
- A. Group therapy
- B. Behavioral rehearsal
- C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- D. Medication management
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.
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