Nursing Elites

1. When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?

• A. The individual assertively confronts the boss
• B. The individual leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym
• C. The individual criticizes a coworker
• D. The individual takes the boss out to lunch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• B. Compulsive behaviors
• C. Delusions of grandeur
• D. Avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), common findings include recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve having an exaggerated sense of power, importance, or identity, are not typically associated with OCD. It is important to differentiate between the specific characteristics of OCD and other mental health conditions to provide accurate care and interventions for clients.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• C. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• D. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.

4. A client is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety. Which is an example of an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to pace in a safe environment.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings.
• C. Help the client identify the cause of anxiety.
• D. Provide a distraction for the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the client to pace in a safe environment is an appropriate nursing intervention for managing moderate anxiety levels. Allowing pacing provides the client with a physical outlet for their anxiety and can help them release nervous energy without increasing distress. It promotes movement and can aid in reducing feelings of restlessness or agitation. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is more suitable for addressing emotional aspects of anxiety rather than providing an immediate physical outlet. Helping the client identify the cause of anxiety (Choice C) may be more appropriate for long-term management but may not address the immediate need for physical release. Providing a distraction (Choice D) may not directly address the physical needs associated with moderate anxiety levels.

5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

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