Nursing Elites

1. An advance directive known as a durable power of attorney involves appointing another person called a(n) _____ to act as the decision maker in the event of the patient's incapacitation.

• A. witness
• B. primary caregiver
• C. health care agent
• D. state proxy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'health care agent.' A health care agent is appointed through a durable power of attorney to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated. The term 'witness' (choice A) is incorrect because a witness only observes the signing of the directive and does not make decisions. 'Primary caregiver' (choice B) is also incorrect as they may provide care but are not necessarily legally empowered to make decisions. 'State proxy' (choice D) is not commonly used in the context of advance directives or health care decision making, making it an incorrect choice.

2. Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.

• A. rectal bleeding
• B. abdominal pain
• C. rectal fissures
• D. esophageal paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal pain is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), along with bloating and changes in bowel habits. Rectal bleeding (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Rectal fissures (choice C) may cause rectal bleeding but are not typically considered a core symptom of IBS. Esophageal paralysis (choice D) is unrelated to the symptoms of IBS, which primarily affect the lower gastrointestinal tract.

3. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines:

• A. The external circumference of the tube
• B. The internal diameter of the tube
• C. The length of the tube
• D. The tube’s volumetric capacity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

5. When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?

• A. Dental problems
• B. Depression
• C. Both A and B
• D. Ability to prepare meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.

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