ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam
1. What type of diet would most likely benefit a patient with cystic fibrosis?
- A. Low sodium
- B. Low fat
- C. Clear liquid
- D. High calorie, high protein
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with cystic fibrosis often have malabsorption issues, leading to increased energy needs. A high-calorie, high-protein diet is recommended to help meet these needs, support growth, and maintain overall health. Choices A, B, and C do not address the specific dietary requirements associated with cystic fibrosis, making them less beneficial for these patients.
2. Your patient recently had abdominal surgery and tells you that he feels a popping sensation in his incision during a coughing spell, followed by severe pain. You anticipate an evisceration. Which supplies should you take to his room?
- A. A suture kit.
- B. Sterile water and a suture kit.
- C. Sterile water and sterile dressings.
- D. Sterile saline solution and sterile dressings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a suspected evisceration, sterile saline solution and sterile dressings should be taken to the patient's room to cover the wound and keep it moist.
3. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
- B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
- C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
- D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.
4. A client has AIDS. Which of these findings indicate possible infection?
- A. Respirations; 22 breaths per minute
- B. Client ambulates 20 feet
- C. Purulent drainage
- D. Oxygen saturation; 97% on room air
Correct answer: Purulent drainage
Rationale:
5. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
- B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
- C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
- D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.