ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. A woman is complaining that she feels like the room is spinning even though she is not moving. Which of the following is characteristic of benign positional vertigo?
- A. It usually occurs with a headache.
- B. Pupillary changes are common.
- C. It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
- D. Nystagmus continues even when eyes fixate on an object.
Correct answer: It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
Rationale: Benign positional vertigo is typically triggered by changes in head position, such as bending forward or turning over in bed. This change in position leads to brief episodes of vertigo, often associated with nystagmus, which is rapid, involuntary eye movements. Pupillary changes and headaches are not typical features of benign positional vertigo, making choices B and A incorrect. Nystagmus in benign positional vertigo usually stops when the eyes fixate on an object, so choice D is also incorrect.
2. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate to address parasitism issues?
- A. Administering broad-spectrum antihelminthic treatment to patients
- B. Emphasizing the importance of thoroughly washing vegetables, especially if consumed raw
- C. Instructing on proper stool disposal and emphasizing not to use it as fertilizer
- D. Promoting hand washing before and after meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In addressing parasitism issues, it is crucial to educate individuals on the proper disposal of stools and emphasize that they should not be used as fertilizer to prevent the spread of parasites. Administering antihelminthic treatment, emphasizing vegetable washing, and promoting hand hygiene are all important interventions in managing parasitism, making them inappropriate choices for exceptions.
3. Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
- A. activate vitamin D
- B. stimulate appetite
- C. lower cholesterol
- D. mobilize fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that helps mobilize fluids by increasing urine output, often used to treat conditions like edema and heart failure.
4. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
- B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
- C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
- D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.
5. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
- A. Potential complication: seizures
- B. Potential complication: infection
- C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
- D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.
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