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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. A woman is complaining that she feels like the room is spinning even though she is not moving. Which of the following is characteristic of benign positional vertigo?
- A. It usually occurs with a headache.
- B. Pupillary changes are common.
- C. It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
- D. Nystagmus continues even when eyes fixate on an object.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Benign positional vertigo is typically triggered by changes in head position, such as bending forward or turning over in bed. This change in position leads to brief episodes of vertigo, often associated with nystagmus, which is rapid, involuntary eye movements. Pupillary changes and headaches are not typical features of benign positional vertigo, making choices B and A incorrect. Nystagmus in benign positional vertigo usually stops when the eyes fixate on an object, so choice D is also incorrect.
2. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
- A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
- B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
- C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
- D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.
3. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
4. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
- B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
- D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus has just undergone a right, below-the-knee amputation following gangrene infection. A few days after the amputation, the client confides in the nurse that he still feels his right foot. Knowing the pathophysiologic principles behind this, the nurse can:
- A. administer a psychotropic medication to help the client cope with the sensation of his amputated leg.
- B. explain that many amputees have this sensation and that one theory surmises the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue of the amputation site.
- C. call the physician and request an order for a psychological consult.
- D. educate the client that this area has an unusually abnormal increase in sensitivity to sensation but that it will go away with time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The sensation of feeling the amputated limb is known as phantom limb pain, which is common after amputation. One theory suggests that it occurs because the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue at the amputation site. Administering psychotropic medication (choice A) is not the first-line treatment for phantom limb pain. Requesting a psychological consult (choice C) is premature without first addressing the known pathophysiological basis of phantom limb pain. Educating the client that the sensitivity will go away with time (choice D) is not entirely accurate as phantom limb pain can persist long-term.
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