Nursing Elites

1. A teen with asthma asks the nurse why it is hard to breathe during an asthma attack. The nurse explains that exposure to a “trigger” results in which of these manifestations?

• A. Bronchodilation, muscle relaxation, and decreased mucus production
• B. Air trapping and hypo-inflation of the alveoli
• C. Air trapping and decreased blood flow to the upper airway
• D. Bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation, and excess mucus production

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asthma triggers cause bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation, and increased mucus production, leading to difficulty breathing. This combination of manifestations results in narrowing of the airways, making it hard for the individual to breathe effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during an asthma attack, bronchodilation, muscle relaxation, and decreased mucus production do not occur. Instead, the airways constrict, become inflamed, and produce excess mucus, contributing to the breathing difficulties experienced by individuals with asthma.

2. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 4 years
• B. 5 to 7 years
• C. 8 to 10 years
• D. 11 to 13 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is typically between 5 and 7 years old. This age group is most affected due to the higher incidence of streptococcal infections in school-aged children, which can lead to this renal complication.

3. For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs?

• A. Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal
• B. Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides
• C. Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal
• D. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The effectiveness of prednisone in treating MCNS is indicated by diuresis and a decrease in urinary protein excretion. Subsidence of generalized edema is also a positive sign, but the key indicator is the reduction in proteinuria, which is achieved through diuresis.

4. The nurse is preparing to care for a newborn with an omphalocele. The nurse should understand that care of the infant should include what intervention?

• A. Initiating breast or bottle-feedings to stabilize the blood glucose level
• B. Maintaining pain management with an intravenous opioid
• C. Covering the intact bowel with a nonadherent dressing to prevent injury
• D. Performing immediate surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for an infant with an omphalocele is to cover the intact bowel with a nonadherent dressing to protect the exposed organs and prevent infection. This intervention is crucial to prevent injury and maintain the infant's safety. Initiating feedings or maintaining pain management are not the immediate priorities in the care of an infant with an omphalocele. Performing immediate surgery may be required in the future, but initially, covering the bowel is the first critical step in management.

5. A parent brings their 4-year-old child for a check-up. Which finding would concern the nurse?

• A. Ectomorphic body type
• B. Resting pulse rate of 120
• C. Weight gain of 5 lb (2.27 kg) in the past year
• D. No increase in appetite compared with that in toddler years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A resting pulse rate of 120 is elevated for a 4-year-old and may indicate an underlying issue that needs further investigation. An ectomorphic body type is a body shape and not typically a cause for concern. Weight gain within normal limits and no significant change in appetite are generally positive findings in a growing child.

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