a nurse is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning which symptom shouldnt the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

3. Which chronic medical condition commonly triggers major depressive disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic pain is a common trigger for major depressive disorder. The persistent and distressing nature of chronic pain can lead to feelings of hopelessness, helplessness, and contribute to the development of major depressive disorder in individuals experiencing it.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, identifying and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of the treatment process. This cognitive restructuring helps individuals with major depressive disorder to develop healthier thinking patterns and cope more effectively with their emotions, which ultimately leads to improvement in their mental health. Therefore, when a client is able to identify and challenge negative thoughts, it indicates that they are actively engaging in the therapeutic process and making progress towards better mental well-being.

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