ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had any recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and proteins?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels suggest polycythemia, which can be seen in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option A is less relevant as weight loss is not typically associated with these blood count findings. Option C is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than a respiratory issue. Option D focuses on dietary factors, which are less likely to cause such significant elevations in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as seen in this case.
2. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?
- A. Check for any iodine allergy.
- B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter.
- C. Administer prescribed sedatives.
- D. Assist the patient to a flat position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.
3. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
4. A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
- B. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory
- C. notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms
- D. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, back pain, and difficulty breathing after the transfusion indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction, a severe transfusion reaction. The priority action in this situation is to discontinue the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications. Infusing normal saline helps maintain the patient's intravascular volume and prevent renal damage. Administering oxygen or obtaining a urine specimen is not the most urgent action and could delay essential treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should come after ensuring the patient's safety by stopping the blood transfusion.
5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?
- A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
- B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.
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