ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.
2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?
- A. Projection
- B. Rationalization
- C. Regression
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Rationalization. The client is using rationalization as a defense mechanism by justifying their excessive drinking as a way to relax due to working hard to provide for their family. Rationalization involves creating logical excuses to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others. Regression is reverting to an earlier stage of development in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.
3. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:
- A. Positive symptoms
- B. Negative symptoms
- C. Cognitive symptoms
- D. Mood symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.
4. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Supportive therapy
- D. Pharmacotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.
5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants
- B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.
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