ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.
2. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?
- A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
- B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
- C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
- D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.
3. Which of the following is not a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
- A. Nausea
- B. Insomnia
- C. Weight loss
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common side effects of SSRIs include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs; instead, weight gain is more frequently observed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
4. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.
5. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?
- A. Displacement
- B. Projection
- C. Reaction formation
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.
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