Nursing Elites

1. A nurse enters the room of a patient with bladder cancer. The patient asks the nurse about the actions of chemotherapeutic drugs. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?

• A. Chemotherapeutic drugs will kill all of your cancer cells
• B. Chemotherapeutic medications are attracted mostly to slowly dividing cells
• C. Chemotherapy can cure cancer
• D. Chemotherapy is specifically destroying cancer cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are designed to target and destroy rapidly dividing cells, which include cancer cells. Cancer cells often divide more quickly than normal cells, and chemotherapeutic agents exploit this characteristic to inhibit their growth and promote cell death. While chemotherapy can also affect other rapidly dividing normal cells (such as those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), the primary goal is to target cancerous cells.

2. Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?

• A. Peau d'orange
• B. Painless breast mass
• C. Alopecia
• D. Breast enlargement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.

3. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Risk for bleeding
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.

4. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

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