Nursing Elites

1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Set strict limits on the amount of time the client can engage in compulsive behaviors.
• C. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed.
• D. Gradually limit the amount of time allotted for compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.

3. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving until I know how this medication affects me.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Weight gain
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

5. When assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

• A. Periods of elevated mood
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Flight of ideas
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bipolar disorder, common findings include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure, is more indicative of conditions like major depressive disorder. Therefore, the nurse should not expect to find anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder.

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