Nursing Elites

1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

2. When attempting to determine a teenager's mental health resilience, what assessment question should the nurse ask that is not applicable?

• A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
• B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing a teenager's mental health resilience involves exploring coping mechanisms, support systems, and attitudes towards seeking help. Option D is not relevant to assessing resilience but rather focuses on the comparison between seeking advice from a counselor versus the nurse, which doesn't directly gauge the teenager's resilience.

3. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

4. When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, expected findings include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more common. Hypokalemia can result from decreased intake of potassium-rich foods or excessive purging behaviors commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

5. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is being cared for by a nurse. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased heart rate is a critical symptom to address in a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal as it can indicate potential cardiovascular complications. Monitoring and managing the increased heart rate promptly is essential to prevent adverse outcomes.

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