Nursing Elites

1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

2. What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• C. It may cause significant weight gain.
• D. It is used as a first-line treatment for anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients prescribed bupropion should be educated to avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication to reduce the risk of seizures. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and alcohol can further increase this risk. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of combining bupropion with alcohol to ensure their safety and treatment effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking bupropion in the morning does not prevent insomnia; it is not associated with significant weight gain; and it is not a first-line treatment for anxiety.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

4. Which of the following statements should a healthcare professional recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select the one that doesn't apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego in the face of threats to biological and psychological integrity to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They act as protective devices for the ego, not the id or superego. The id represents primal instincts, while the superego is associated with moral standards. Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with stressors by redirecting focus and are often unconscious and self-deceptive.

5. A client is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety. Which is an example of an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to pace in a safe environment.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings.
• C. Help the client identify the cause of anxiety.
• D. Provide a distraction for the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the client to pace in a safe environment is an appropriate nursing intervention for managing moderate anxiety levels. Allowing pacing provides the client with a physical outlet for their anxiety and can help them release nervous energy without increasing distress. It promotes movement and can aid in reducing feelings of restlessness or agitation. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is more suitable for addressing emotional aspects of anxiety rather than providing an immediate physical outlet. Helping the client identify the cause of anxiety (Choice C) may be more appropriate for long-term management but may not address the immediate need for physical release. Providing a distraction (Choice D) may not directly address the physical needs associated with moderate anxiety levels.

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