Nursing Elites

1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

2. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
• B. Provide a structured and safe environment.
• C. Engage the patient in a debate about the reality of the voices.
• D. Ask the patient to describe the content of the hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when a patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations is to ask the patient to describe the content of the hallucinations. This intervention helps assess the risk associated with the hallucinations and provides valuable insight into the patient's condition, aiding in developing an effective care plan. Encouraging the patient to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issues or risks associated with the hallucinations. Providing a structured and safe environment (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the hallucinations. Engaging the patient in a debate about the reality of the voices (Choice C) may worsen the situation by invalidating the patient's experiences.

3. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Which behavior is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Excessive need for attention
• B. Instability in relationships
• C. Fear of abandonment
• D. Lack of interest in activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instability in relationships. Individuals with borderline personality disorder often exhibit instability in their relationships, characterized by intense and unstable interpersonal connections, oscillating between idealization and devaluation. This pattern can lead to frequent conflicts, dramatic emotional shifts, and difficulties maintaining stable relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also have an excessive need for attention, fear of abandonment, or lack of interest in activities, the hallmark feature defining this disorder is the instability in relationships.

4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's unhealthy responses and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Psychiatrists use the criteria outlined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) to determine diagnoses. The DSM-5 provides standardized criteria for the classification of mental disorders, ensuring accurate and reliable diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D are inaccurate as hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association is not responsible for psychiatric diagnostic criteria. Choice C describes a more general approach to assessment and does not specifically address the standardized criteria used in psychiatric diagnosis.

5. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
• B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
• C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
• D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

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