ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?
- A. Displacement
- B. Projection
- C. Reaction formation
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.
2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:
- A. 1-2 days
- B. 1-2 weeks
- C. 2-4 weeks
- D. 6-8 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.
3. Which characteristic presents the greatest risk for injury to others in a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia?
- A. Depersonalization
- B. Pressured speech
- C. Negative symptoms
- D. Paranoia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Paranoia in patients with schizophrenia can lead to aggressive behaviors, including violence, which poses a significant risk of injury to others. Individuals experiencing paranoia may perceive others as threats and act defensively or aggressively in response, increasing the likelihood of harm to those around them.
4. Which of the following interventions should not be implemented for a client with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Monitor daily caloric intake and weight
- B. Establish a structured eating plan
- C. Encourage the client to exercise
- D. Provide liquid supplements as prescribed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Interventions for a client with anorexia nervosa should focus on monitoring daily caloric intake and weight, establishing a structured eating plan, providing liquid supplements as prescribed, and offering rewards for weight gain. Encouraging exercise is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by increasing energy expenditure and potentially reinforcing unhealthy behaviors associated with anorexia nervosa.
5. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?
- A. Restating
- B. Encouraging description of perception
- C. Summarizing
- D. Asking 'why' questions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access