ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Lung cancer
- D. Sarcoidosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.
2. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?
- A. Saquinavir mesylate
- B. Oseltamivir phosphate
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.
3. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.
4. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
- A. Anemia
- B. Recurrent infections
- C. Hypersensitivity
- D. Autoantibody production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.
5. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?
- A. A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years
- B. Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe
- C. An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly
- D. An older adult female who chews gum frequently
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.
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