Nursing Elites

1. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

3. In patients with heart failure, which type of diet is most recommended?

• A. High-sodium
• B. Low-sodium
• C. High-fat
• D. Low-carbohydrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-sodium diet is most recommended for patients with heart failure. This type of diet helps manage fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the body, which in turn decreases the workload on the heart. High-sodium diets can lead to fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. High-fat and low-carbohydrate diets are not specifically recommended for heart failure patients as the focus is primarily on controlling sodium intake.

4. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetrics and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing, which includes caring for adult patients who are acutely ill or recovering from surgery. Obstetrics and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas that may not be covered in the entry-level competencies of the practical nurse course.

5. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.

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