Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

2. A nurse in the medical-surgical unit has a newly admitted patient who is oliguric; the acute care nurse practitioner orders a fluid challenge of 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The nurse is aware this intervention will help:

• A. Distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia
• B. Evaluate pituitary gland function
• C. Distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function
• D. Provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a fluid challenge in oliguric patients helps to distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. This intervention aids in determining whether the oliguria is due to reduced renal blood flow (such as in fluid volume deficit or prerenal azotemia) or decreased renal function (such as in acute tubular necrosis). The response to this challenge can indicate the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of a fluid challenge in oliguric patients.

3. The patient asks the nurse if he will die if air bubbles get into the IV tubing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. The system is closed, and that scenario is highly unlikely.
• B. Only relatively large volumes of air administered rapidly are dangerous.
• C. There is a risk of complications associated with IV administration.
• D. You have been influenced by movies too much.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because air emboli are more commonly associated with central vein access. Usually, only relatively large volumes of air administered rapidly are dangerous. It is a significant concern when air enters a central venous access line. Choice A is incorrect as it downplays the risk and is not entirely accurate. Choice C is too general and does not specifically address the patient's concern. Choice D is dismissive and does not provide any relevant information regarding the risk of air bubbles in IV tubing.

4. Which of the following might the nurse assess in a patient diagnosed with hypermagnesemia?

• A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Cool clammy skin
• D. Increased serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diminished deep tendon reflexes. In a patient with hypermagnesemia, the nurse would assess for diminished deep tendon reflexes. Hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular depression, causing a decrease in deep tendon reflexes. Tachycardia (choice B) is more commonly associated with hypomagnesemia. Cool clammy skin (choice C) is not typically a direct symptom of hypermagnesemia. While hypermagnesemia does involve increased serum magnesium levels (choice D), assessing serum levels is a laboratory test and not a clinical assessment like checking deep tendon reflexes.

5. What is the most abundant positive ion in blood plasma?

• A. Potassium.
• B. Calcium.
• C. Sodium.
• D. Both potassium and sodium are in equal concentrations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium. Sodium (Na+) is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid, including blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and is essential for various physiological processes. Choice A, Potassium, is also an important ion in the body but is predominantly found intracellularly. Choice B, Calcium, is an essential mineral in the body but is not the most abundant positive ion in blood plasma. Choice D is incorrect as sodium is the primary positive ion in blood plasma, with a much higher concentration compared to potassium.

Similar Questions