Nursing Elites

1. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

2. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.

3. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients are at increased risk for hypophosphatemia? (Select all that do not apply.)

• A. A 36-year-old who is malnourished
• B. A 42-year-old with uncontrolled diabetes
• C. A 76-year-old who is prescribed antacids
• D. 50-year-old with hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. A nurse evaluates a clients arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.30, PaO2 86 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess the airway.
• B. Administer prescribed bronchodilators.
• C. Provide oxygen.
• D. Administer prescribed mucolytics

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

5. The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation?

• A. Endocarditis
• B. Multiple myeloma
• C. Guillain-Barr syndrome
• D. Overdose of amphetamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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