ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?
- A. Lymphocytes recognize the host's tissue as foreign.
- B. Erythrocytes destroy the T cells of the host.
- C. The involution of the thymus gland increases the risk of infection.
- D. The differential decreases the sedimentation rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.
2. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.
3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
4. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
- B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
- C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.
5. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?
- A. The inner layer (archilayer)
- B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
- C. The outer layer (neolayer)
- D. The reticular formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.
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