a patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmun
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Exam

1. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

2. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

3. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

4. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.

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