ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?
- A. Lymphocytes recognize the host's tissue as foreign.
- B. Erythrocytes destroy the T cells of the host.
- C. The involution of the thymus gland increases the risk of infection.
- D. The differential decreases the sedimentation rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.
2. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?
- A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
- B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
- C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
- D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.
3. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
4. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of
- A. sexual dysfunction.
- B. urethral burning.
- C. kidney stones.
- D. visual disturbances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.
5. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
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