ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. A patient requires assistance to stand from a sitting position. Which action by the nurse ensures patient safety?
- A. Allow the patient to pull up on the nurse's arm.
- B. Place a gait belt around the patient for support.
- C. Have the patient push off the chair with their hands.
- D. Ask the patient to lift themselves up without support.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Placing a gait belt around the patient for support is the safest option when assisting a patient to stand from a sitting position. This belt provides stability and support, reducing the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Allowing the patient to pull up on the nurse's arm (Choice A) may lead to instability and compromise safety. Having the patient push off the chair with their hands (Choice C) might not provide sufficient support, especially for patients who require assistance. Asking the patient to lift themselves up without support (Choice D) can be dangerous and increase the risk of falls.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
3. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Provide oxygen
- C. Perform an ECG
- D. Administer nitroglycerin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering nitroglycerin is the priority action when a client is experiencing chest pain as it helps alleviate the pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Oxygen can be beneficial, but nitroglycerin takes precedence in this situation. Aspirin can also be given, but nitroglycerin is the priority. Performing an ECG can provide valuable information but is not the first action to take in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly?
- A. Sit the client upright
- B. Stop the TPN infusion
- C. Turn the client on their left side
- D. Prepare to add insulin to the TPN infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly is to stop the TPN infusion. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload and ensure the client's safety. Sitting the client upright (Choice A) or turning the client on their left side (Choice C) are not appropriate responses to a rapidly infusing TPN solution and do not address the immediate issue of preventing complications from the rapid infusion. Adding insulin to the TPN infusion (Choice D) is not indicated unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider for the client's condition. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the TPN infusion to prevent potential harm.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
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