ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of morphine to a patient with terminal cancer. What is the nurse's primary consideration before administration?
- A. Ensure the family is aware of the dosage to be administered.
- B. Monitor the patient for respiratory depression.
- C. Administer the morphine in divided doses.
- D. Delay administration until the next assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the patient for respiratory depression. When administering a high dose of morphine, the nurse's primary consideration should be to monitor the patient for respiratory depression, as morphine can slow down breathing, especially in higher doses. Option A is incorrect because the primary focus should be on the patient's well-being and safety rather than family awareness at this point. Option C is not the best approach as the immediate concern is monitoring the patient closely for any adverse effects. Option D is not advisable as delaying administration without a valid reason can compromise pain management in a terminal cancer patient.
2. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
3. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?
- A. Develop an MRSA protocol for implementation.
- B. Provide educational in-services for staff.
- C. Evaluate outcomes resulting from interventions.
- D. Conduct a chart review to evaluate precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult client. The nurse informs the client that straining while defecating can cause which of the following?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Gastric ulcer
- C. Dilated pupils
- D. Dysrhythmias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysrhythmias. Straining while defecating can lead to dysrhythmias due to increased vagal stimulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Straining while defecating is not typically associated with causing diarrhea, gastric ulcers, or dilated pupils.
5. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?
- A. When medication that has been administered has taken effect
- B. When no acts of aggression are observed in the hour following the release of two extremity restraints
- C. When the nurse explores with the client the reasons for the angry and aggressive behavior
- D. When the client apologizes and tells the nurse that it will never happen again
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access