Nursing Elites

1. A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?

• A. Monitor temperature daily
• B. Limit visitors
• C. Administer antibiotics prophylactically
• D. Use reverse isolation precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

2. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?

• A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
• B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
• C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
• D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Tremor
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

4. A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

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