ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.
2. Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?
- A. Following facility guidelines at all times
- B. Using equipment in a knowledgeable manner
- C. Communicating effectively with clients
- D. Documenting client interactions accurately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Chills and fever
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
5. A client who reports insomnia is being taught by a nurse about promoting rest and sleep. Which statement should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will walk briskly for 30 minutes before bedtime
- B. I will have a cup of hot cocoa immediately before bedtime
- C. I will no longer have a glass of wine before bedtime
- D. I will do my muscle relaxation techniques each afternoon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because avoiding alcohol before bedtime can help promote better sleep. Choice A is incorrect as vigorous exercise close to bedtime can actually hinder sleep. Choice B is also incorrect as consuming beverages with caffeine or sugar close to bedtime can disrupt sleep. Choice D, while a good practice, does not directly address the issue of avoiding alcohol before bedtime to improve sleep quality.
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