a nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg iv bolus every 6 hours available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml dextrose 5 in water d5w to infuse
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Nursing Elites

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.

2. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.

3. A client with a DNR order has requested resuscitation during a visit from the family. What is the nurse's best course of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to explain to the family that the DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order must be honored. It is essential for the nurse to uphold the client's wishes as documented in the DNR order. Performing CPR against the client's expressed wishes in the DNR order would violate ethical and legal standards. Calling the healthcare provider to cancel the DNR order without the client's consent is inappropriate and goes against the client's autonomy. Delaying resuscitation can be detrimental in an emergency situation and may not align with the client's wishes as outlined in the DNR order.

4. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

5. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for respiratory depression first when assessing a client receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate. Respiratory depression is the most common life-threatening side effect associated with morphine administration. Monitoring respiratory status is crucial as it can quickly deteriorate, leading to serious complications or even respiratory arrest. Assessing pain control (choice B) is important but ensuring adequate ventilation takes precedence. Checking the infusion site for complications (choice C) and monitoring blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of care but are secondary to evaluating respiratory status when administering morphine.

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