ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
2. What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients on tamoxifen should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; it may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, and it may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
3. What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?
- A. Adherence to the medication schedule
- B. The possibility of pregnancy
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.
4. Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in the bone marrow. What cells are formed during this process?
- A. Pancreatic beta cells
- B. Red blood cells
- C. Gastric parietal cells
- D. Neurons and glial cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cells. Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation that primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Red blood cells are one of the main cell types formed during this process. Pancreatic beta cells (Choice A), gastric parietal cells (Choice C), and neurons and glial cells (Choice D) are not formed during hematopoiesis. Pancreatic beta cells are involved in insulin production, gastric parietal cells secrete gastric acid, and neurons and glial cells are part of the nervous system.
5. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?
- A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
- B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
- C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.
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