Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

2. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. In gouty arthritis, the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the affected joint is caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to the accumulation and subsequent crystallization of urate crystals. Choice A, destruction of proteoglycans, is incorrect as it is not directly related to the crystallization process in gouty arthritis. Choice C, overexcretion of uric acid, is incorrect because gout is primarily associated with underexcretion or decreased excretion of uric acid rather than overexcretion. Choice D, increased absorption of uric acid, is also incorrect as the primary issue in gouty arthritis is the body's inability to properly eliminate uric acid.

3. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

4. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• C. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
• D. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.

5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?

• A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
• B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
• C. Changes in speech and reasoning
• D. Increased intracranial pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.

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