ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?
- A. Potassium supplements
- B. Sodium restriction
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Renal dialysis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.
2. A patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells.
- A. Metaplasia
- B. Organ atrophy
- C. Compensatory hyperplasia
- D. Physiologic hyperplasia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Compensatory hyperplasia is the process by which the remaining cells increase in number to adapt to the reduced size of the liver. In this case, after the removal of a lobe of the liver, the remaining cells undergo compensatory hyperplasia to compensate for the lost tissue. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, not an increase in cell number. Organ atrophy is the decrease in organ size due to cell shrinkage or loss, which is opposite to an increase in cell number seen in compensatory hyperplasia. Physiologic hyperplasia is the increase in cell number in response to a normal physiological demand, not specifically due to the removal of a portion of the organ.
3. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Free radicals
- C. Ischemia
- D. Chemical toxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.
4. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Stool for ova and parasites
- C. Colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
- D. Rectal swab for culture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.
5. What typically causes contact dermatitis?
- A. Fungal infection
- B. Long-term disorder from gout
- C. Contact with a skin allergen
- D. Staphylococcal infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.
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