ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. A patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate action?
- A. Assist the patient into a high Fowler's position.
- B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and cough.
- D. Assess the patient's lung sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula is the immediate action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. This intervention helps to improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress promptly. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice A) may also be beneficial but providing oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to address the underlying hypoxemia. Encouraging deep breaths and coughing (choice C) may not be appropriate as the first action, especially without assessing the patient first. Assessing lung sounds (choice D) is essential but should follow the initial intervention of administering oxygen.
2. A patient reflects a correct understanding about the relationship between the gate control theory of pain and the use of meditation to relieve pain?
- A. Meditation alters the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators, which closes the gate.
- B. Meditation stops the occurrence of pain stimuli.
- C. Meditation controls pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate.
- D. Meditation will help me sleep through the pain because it opens the gate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to the gate control theory, meditation helps relieve pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate in the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect as meditation does not directly alter the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators. Choice B is incorrect because meditation does not stop the occurrence of pain stimuli. Choice D is incorrect as meditation does not open the gate but rather closes it to block pain impulses.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?
- A. Hematocrit 45%
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
- D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.
4. Which nursing action will most likely increase a patient's risk for developing a health care-associated infection?
- A. Uses a sterile bottled solution more than once within a 24-hour period.
- B. Uses surgical aseptic technique to suction an airway.
- C. Uses a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter.
- D. Uses a cleaning stroke from the urinary meatus toward the rectum.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter increases the risk for healthcare-associated infections. Invasive procedures like catheter insertion require a sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate infection control measures by emphasizing the use of sterile or aseptic techniques. Choice D represents an incorrect technique that can lead to the introduction of bacteria from the rectum into the urinary tract, potentially causing infections.
5. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels.
- B. Assess the patient's blood pressure regularly.
- C. Monitor the patient's heart rate every 4 hours.
- D. Check the patient's urine output hourly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.
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