a nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction the nurse should monitor the client for which of the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

2. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel (AP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring hourly urinary output is a task that falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. This task involves a technical skill that can be delegated by the charge nurse. Choices A, B, and C require higher-level nursing assessments and interventions that should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Giving a glycerin suppository involves medication administration, evaluating the effectiveness of ibuprofen requires assessment and critical thinking, and discussing dietary changes involves education and assessment of the client's understanding and compliance, all of which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

3. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.

4. A nurse is planning preoperative care for a client who will undergo surgery. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the preoperative phase, determining what the client knows about the surgery is the priority. This action helps address misconceptions, provide necessary information, and ensure the client's understanding and cooperation. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of preoperative care but assessing the client's knowledge about the surgery takes precedence to alleviate fears, enhance communication, and optimize outcomes.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

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