Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Decreased anginal pain
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Decreased anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
• B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
• C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.

3. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?

• A. Obtain a detailed medical history
• B. Administer nitroglycerin
• C. Conduct an ECG
• D. Administer morphine sulfate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?

• A. The client reports an increase in weight
• B. The client has a decrease in blood pressure
• C. The client reports an increase in energy
• D. The client's respiratory rate has increased

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.

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