Nursing Elites

1. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

• A. Cardiac function
• B. Renal function
• C. Liver function
• D. Pulmonary function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET) who is at risk for thromboembolic events. What nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

• A. Encouraging regular physical activity
• B. Administering anticoagulant therapy
• C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulant therapy is crucial to prevent thromboembolic events in patients with ET.

4. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased uric acid level
• B. Increased serum potassium level
• C. Increased serum sodium level
• D. Increased fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
• C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
• D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

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