Nursing Elites

1. In a postmenopausal woman, what condition can be prevented by administering estradiol (Estraderm)?

• A. Endometriosis
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Uterine cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Estradiol, a form of estrogen, is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by maintaining bone density. Choice A, Endometriosis, is incorrect as estradiol is not used to prevent or treat this condition. Choice B, Amenorrhea, is not prevented by estradiol but rather may result from hormonal changes. Choice D, Uterine cancer, is not directly prevented by estradiol; in fact, long-term unopposed estrogen use can increase the risk of uterine cancer.

2. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.

3. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

• A. Adaptation
• B. Pathologic calcification
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Necrosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

4. A patient is being administered chemotherapeutic agents for the treatment of cancer. Which of the following blood cells will be stimulated by the colony-stimulating factors in response to the effects of the chemotherapy?

• A. White blood cells
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Phagocytes
• D. Myocardial cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is White blood cells. Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production of white blood cells in response to the effects of chemotherapy, as it can lead to myelosuppression. Red blood cells are not directly stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, but they are not specifically stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Myocardial cells are cardiac muscle cells and are not directly involved in the response to chemotherapy-induced myelosuppression.

5. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?

• A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
• B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
• C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
• D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.

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