Nursing Elites

1. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?

• A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• B. Platelet count
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.

2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

3. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

4. The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?

• A. Cognitive deficits
• B. Impaired wound healing
• C. Cardiac tamponade
• D. Tumor lysis syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Patients who have undergone radiation therapy are at risk for impaired wound healing due to tissue damage. While cognitive deficits, cardiac tamponade, and tumor lysis syndrome can be concerns for oncology patients, the immediate priority following radiation therapy is assessing for impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery.

5. Which of the following is considered correct in dealing with a patient who has gastric cancer?

• A. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to increase fluids during meals
• B. After total gastrectomy, patient will need lots of fiber in the diet
• C. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to walk about after meals
• D. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to lie flat on bed after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total gastrectomy, where the entire stomach is removed, patients can experience dumping syndrome due to the rapid passage of food into the small intestine. This condition can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Lying flat after meals can help slow down the movement of food into the intestines, reducing the risk of dumping syndrome. It's important for patients to follow dietary recommendations and positioning strategies to manage symptoms effectively.

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