a patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork what should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priorit
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Oncology Questions

1. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.

2. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

3. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. The nurse is instructing a client on ways to reduce the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy. Which of the following should be emphasized?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a mastectomy, particularly when lymph nodes are removed, patients are at increased risk for developing lymphedema, which is a buildup of lymph fluid that can cause swelling in the affected arm. Wearing tight clothing can constrict lymphatic flow and increase the risk of developing lymphedema by impeding normal lymphatic drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to advise patients to avoid tight-fitting clothing, especially around the chest and arm areas.

Similar Questions

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