Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the oncology clinic is providing preoperative education to a client just diagnosed with cancer. The client has been scheduled for surgery in 3 days. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Call the client at home the next day to review teaching.
• B. Give the client information about a cancer support group.
• C. Provide all the preoperative instructions in writing.
• D. Reassure the client that surgery will be over soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients are often overwhelmed by a sudden cancer diagnosis; therefore, it is best for the nurse to call the client at home the next day to review teaching. This approach allows the client time to process the information before the surgery. Choice B may be beneficial but is not the priority at this time. Providing written instructions (Choice C) is helpful but does not offer the personalized interaction needed. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important but does not address the educational aspect of preoperative preparation.

2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

3. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of conization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Infection
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Cervical stenosis
• D. Ovarian perforation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ovarian perforation.' Ovarian perforation is not a complication associated with conization; therefore, if the client identifies this as a potential complication, it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Infection, hemorrhage, and cervical stenosis are potential complications of conization, so identifying them would not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.

4. Which of the following is considered correct in dealing with a patient who has gastric cancer?

• A. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to increase fluids during meals
• B. After total gastrectomy, patient will need lots of fiber in the diet
• C. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to walk about after meals
• D. After total gastrectomy, patient will have to lie flat on bed after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total gastrectomy, where the entire stomach is removed, patients can experience dumping syndrome due to the rapid passage of food into the small intestine. This condition can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Lying flat after meals can help slow down the movement of food into the intestines, reducing the risk of dumping syndrome. It's important for patients to follow dietary recommendations and positioning strategies to manage symptoms effectively.

5. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

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