Nursing Elites

1. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

2. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

3. Which strategy is most effective in preventing existing challenging behaviors?

• A. Ignoring the behaviors
• B. Individualized interventions
• C. Providing flexible rules
• D. Punishment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individualized interventions are tailored to address the specific needs and triggers of the individual's challenging behaviors. By customizing the approach to each person, it increases the likelihood of effectively preventing and managing the existing challenging behaviors.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of an infant who is receiving treatment for severe dehydration. The professional should identify which of the following laboratory values indicates effectiveness of the current treatment?

• A. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
• D. BUN 25 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L within the expected reference range indicates effective treatment for dehydration. In dehydration, sodium levels are often elevated, so a normal sodium level suggests that the treatment is helping to restore the electrolyte balance in the infant's body.

5. A toddler is admitted to the surgical unit for a planned closure of a temporary colostomy. Which medical prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Clear liquids today, NPO tomorrow
• B. Type and cross-match for 1 unit of packed red blood cells
• C. Rectal temperatures every 4 hours
• D. Start an intravenous line with D5NS at 20 mL per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rectal temperatures should be avoided in a toddler with a colostomy due to the risk of injury. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate medical prescriptions for a toddler undergoing colostomy closure. Choice A ensures the toddler's intake of clear liquids before being made NPO, choice B prepares for possible blood transfusion needs, and choice D initiates intravenous hydration with D5NS at an appropriate rate.

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