Nursing Elites

1. A parent tells the nurse that her child is scheduled for an x-ray of the bladder and urethra that is done while the child is urinating. What is this test known as?

• A. Cystometrogram
• B. Cystoscopy
• C. Voiding cystourethrogram
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test for an x-ray examination of the bladder and urethra before and during micturition is a voiding cystourethrogram. This procedure allows visualization of the bladder and urethra while the patient is urinating to assess for any abnormalities in the anatomy or function of these structures.

2. A child has Wilms' tumor and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Palpate the child's abdomen daily for tumor size.
• B. Reposition the child frequently.
• C. Prepare the child for chemotherapy.
• D. Avoid palpating the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the abdomen of a child with Wilms' tumor should be avoided to prevent the risk of rupturing the tumor and spreading cancer cells. This action is crucial to maintain the child's safety and prevent potential complications before surgery.

3. A toddler in the emergency department has partial thickness burns on his right arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a nasogastric tube
• B. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy
• C. Cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water
• D. Apply a topical corticosteroid to the affected area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a toddler has partial thickness burns, the nurse should cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water. This action helps remove any loose tissue that could lead to infection and prepares the area for appropriate wound care. Inserting a nasogastric tube (Choice A) is not indicated for a toddler with burns. Initiating prophylactic antibiotic therapy (Choice B) is not necessary for partial thickness burns unless there are signs of infection. Applying a topical corticosteroid (Choice D) is not recommended for initial management of burns as it can delay wound healing.

4. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

5. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

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