Nursing Elites

1. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux asks how to decrease the number and total volume of emesis. What recommendation should the nurse include in teaching this parent?

• A. Surgical therapy is indicated.
• B. Place the infant in a prone position for sleep after feeding.
• C. Thicken feedings and enlarge the nipple hole.
• D. Reduce the frequency of feeding by encouraging larger volumes of formula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for decreasing the number and total volume of emesis in an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is to thicken feedings and enlarge the nipple hole. Thicker feedings can reduce the frequency and volume of emesis by making the food less likely to be regurgitated. Enlarging the nipple hole helps ensure the thickened feedings can pass through. Surgical therapy (Choice A) is not the initial recommendation for managing gastroesophageal reflux in infants. Placing the infant in a prone position for sleep after feeding (Choice B) is not recommended due to the increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Reducing the frequency of feeding by encouraging larger volumes of formula (Choice D) can exacerbate the reflux symptoms.

2. When transitioning from intravenous to oral morphine, what would the nurse anticipate regarding the oral dose in comparison to the intravenous dose to achieve equianalgesia?

• A. Same as the intravenous dose
• B. Greater than the intravenous dose
• C. One half of the intravenous dose
• D. One fourth of the intravenous dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When switching from intravenous to oral morphine, a higher oral dose is required to achieve equianalgesia due to significant metabolism from the first-pass effect. Choosing the same oral dose as the intravenous dose would provide less pain relief. Opting for a dose greater than the intravenous dose is necessary to achieve the same analgesic effect. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. In children with Type 1 diabetes, what is a common early sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Irritability
• B. Rapid heartbeat
• C. Confusion
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is indeed one of the earliest signs of hypoglycemia in children with Type 1 diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, which can lead to sweating. While irritability, rapid heartbeat, and confusion can also be seen in hypoglycemia, sweating is particularly common as a quick indicator of low blood sugar levels in children with Type 1 diabetes.

4. When should a child receive the first dose of the hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccine if the mother is hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) negative?

• A. 2 months of age, before hospital discharge.
• B. Birth before discharge from the hospital.
• C. 6 months of age, at the third well-child visit.
• D. No time (this vaccine is not currently recommended).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If the mother is HBsAg negative, it is recommended that the child receives the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine at birth before discharge from the hospital. This is to provide early protection against the hepatitis B virus. The second dose of the vaccine is typically given at the first well-child visit, and the third dose is usually administered at a later date. The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Committee on Infectious Diseases of the American Academy of Pediatrics govern the recommendations for immunization, including the hepatitis B virus vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as the first dose should ideally be given at birth. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 6 months of age may leave the child vulnerable to infection during the early months of life. Choice D is incorrect as the hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for all newborns, especially if the mother is HBsAg negative, to prevent transmission of the virus.

5. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 4 years
• B. 5 to 7 years
• C. 8 to 10 years
• D. 11 to 13 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is typically between 5 and 7 years old. This age group is most affected due to the higher incidence of streptococcal infections in school-aged children, which can lead to this renal complication.

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