Nursing Elites

1. A nurse suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics. What is the nurse's first course of action?

• A. Confront the colleague directly about the suspicion.
• B. Report the suspicion to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the situation unless there is clear evidence.
• D. Keep a record of the colleague's actions for future reference.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first course of action for a nurse suspecting a colleague of diverting narcotics is to report the suspicion to the nurse manager. Confronting the colleague directly may not be safe and could compromise the investigation. Ignoring the situation is not appropriate as it can pose risks to patient safety. Keeping a record of the colleague's actions is not the primary action to take when drug diversion is suspected; reporting to the nurse manager is crucial for proper investigation and ensuring patient safety.

2. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
• B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
• C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
• D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.

3. What is the most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level?

• A. Observe the patient's facial expressions.
• B. Use a standardized pain scale, such as 0-10.
• C. Ask the patient to rate their pain based on their mood.
• D. Ask the patient's family members to assess the pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level is to use a standardized pain scale, such as a 0-10 scale. This method provides an objective and consistent way to measure and communicate the intensity of pain experienced by the patient. Choice A, observing facial expressions, can be subjective and may not always accurately reflect the level of pain. Choice C, asking the patient to rate their pain based on their mood, may be influenced by various factors unrelated to pain. Choice D, involving the patient's family members in assessing the pain, is not ideal as pain is a subjective experience that should be reported by the patient themselves.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

Similar Questions