Nursing Elites

1. What are the key considerations when administering medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube?

• A. Checking tube placement before administration
• B. Administering medication in liquid form whenever possible
• C. Crushing tablets and mixing them with water if needed
• D. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Checking tube placement before administration. This is a crucial step to ensure that the medication reaches the stomach safely and does not end up in the lungs, which can lead to serious complications. Choice B is incorrect as not all medications can be administered in liquid form. Choice C is incorrect because crushing tablets can alter their effectiveness or cause harm. Choice D is incorrect as flushing the NG tube with water is not a standard practice before administering medication, unless specified by healthcare provider instructions.

2. A home health nurse is teaching about chest physiotherapy (CPT) treatments to a client with COPD. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the teaching has been understood?

• A. My coughing will decrease during CPT treatments.
• B. CPT treatments will decrease my respiratory infections.
• C. I will perform postural drainage after eating meals.
• D. CPT treatments will help cure my COPD.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because chest physiotherapy (CPT) helps reduce respiratory infections by loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because coughing may temporarily increase during CPT treatments as mucus is being cleared. Choice C is incorrect because postural drainage is typically performed before meals. Choice D is incorrect because while CPT can help manage symptoms and improve lung function in COPD, it does not cure the disease.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

4. A client with a history of falls is being admitted to the unit. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Increase the client's medication to ensure they don't fall.
• B. Use bed alarms to monitor the client's movements.
• C. Encourage the client to use a walker for mobility.
• D. Assign the client to a nursing assistant for supervision.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use bed alarms to monitor the client's movements.' When a client with a history of falls is admitted, the nurse's initial intervention should focus on fall prevention measures. Using bed alarms to monitor the client's movements can help alert the healthcare team if the client attempts to get out of bed and reduce the risk of falls. Choice A is incorrect because increasing medication should not be the first intervention as it may not address the underlying causes of falls and can have adverse effects. Choice C may be appropriate but is not the priority over implementing safety measures like bed alarms. Choice D is incorrect as assigning the client to a nursing assistant for supervision alone may not be as effective as utilizing bed alarms for continuous monitoring.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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