Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.

2. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?

• A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
• B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
• C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
• D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.

3. Which of the following clients requiring crutches should a nurse teach about how to use a three-point gait?

• A. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight-bearing on the affected leg
• B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities
• C. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight-bearing on both legs
• D. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-point gait is recommended for clients who are non-weight bearing on one leg. In this case, a client with a right femur fracture requiring no weight-bearing on the affected leg would benefit from learning how to use a three-point gait. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve clients who have varying degrees of weight-bearing ability on both legs, which would not require the use of a three-point gait.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

• A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
• B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
• C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
• D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
• B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
• C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
• D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.

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