Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients requiring crutches should a nurse teach about how to use a three-point gait?

• A. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight-bearing on the affected leg
• B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities
• C. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight-bearing on both legs
• D. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-point gait is recommended for clients who are non-weight bearing on one leg. In this case, a client with a right femur fracture requiring no weight-bearing on the affected leg would benefit from learning how to use a three-point gait. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve clients who have varying degrees of weight-bearing ability on both legs, which would not require the use of a three-point gait.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What should the healthcare provider do?

• A. Lightly rub the lower leg to check for redness and tenderness.
• B. Apply elastic stockings every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
• D. Flex the foot while assessing for patient discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the calf circumference of both legs is crucial when assessing for DVT in an immobile patient. A significant increase in the circumference of one calf compared to the other suggests the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because rubbing the lower leg may dislodge a clot if present. Option B is incorrect as elastic stockings should not be removed frequently as this can increase the risk of clot formation. Option D is incorrect as dorsiflexing the foot can lead to pain and should not be done to assess for DVT.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed pulmonary edema. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• D. Monitor the patient's lung sounds every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pulmonary edema by reducing venous return to the heart and enhancing respiratory mechanics. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority over positioning in this situation. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is essential, but the priority action for improving oxygenation is the positioning of the patient. Monitoring lung sounds (Choice D) is crucial for ongoing assessment but is not the priority action when the patient is in distress with pulmonary edema.

4. A healthcare professional is giving a change-of-shift report about a client admitted earlier that day with pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the healthcare professional to provide?

• A. Recent chest x-ray results
• B. Medication history
• C. Breath sounds
• D. Lab results

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breath sounds.' When providing a change-of-shift report for a client with pneumonia, the priority information to communicate is the assessment of breath sounds. Monitoring breath sounds is crucial in assessing respiratory status and the effectiveness of treatments in pneumonia. Option A, recent chest x-ray results, may be important but does not provide real-time information on the client's current status. Option B, medication history, is relevant but not as immediate as assessing breath sounds. Option D, lab results, can provide valuable information but may not be as urgent as monitoring the client's respiratory status through breath sounds.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

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