ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?
- A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
- B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
- C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
- D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.
2. A client is vomiting, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an antiemetic to the client
- B. Notify housekeeping
- C. Prevent the client from aspirating
- D. Provide the client with an emesis basin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority when caring for a client who is vomiting to reduce the risk of pneumonia or other respiratory complications. Aspiration can occur when vomitus enters the airway, leading to respiratory distress. Ensuring the airway is protected during vomiting episodes is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) can be considered after addressing the immediate risk of aspiration. Notifying housekeeping (Choice B) and providing an emesis basin (Choice D) are important but are secondary to preventing aspiration, which is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.
3. What is the primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours?
- A. To improve circulation and relieve pressure.
- B. To prevent contractures and muscle atrophy.
- C. To prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers.
- D. To improve respiratory function and prevent pneumonia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours is to prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Prolonged immobility can lead to pressure ulcers, making this a crucial nursing intervention. Choice A is incorrect because while turning can help improve circulation and relieve pressure, the primary purpose is to prevent skin breakdown. Choice B is incorrect as preventing contractures and muscle atrophy is important but not the primary purpose of turning. Choice D is incorrect as improving respiratory function and preventing pneumonia are not directly related to turning and repositioning for skin integrity.
4. A client reports severe pain unrelieved by pain medication in a limb with traction. What is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increase the dosage of pain medication.
- B. Assess for compartment syndrome.
- C. Wait for the healthcare provider to address the issue.
- D. Reposition the client to alleviate the pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for compartment syndrome. Severe unrelieved pain in a limb with traction can be a sign of compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency. Prompt assessment is crucial to prevent potential complications. Increasing pain medication dosage without addressing the underlying cause may delay necessary interventions. Waiting for the healthcare provider may lead to a critical delay in treatment. Repositioning the client may not alleviate the pain if it is due to compartment syndrome, and it is crucial to assess for this condition first.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following lab results should be reviewed before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can potentiate the effects of low potassium levels, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to review the patient's potassium level before administering digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because calcium level, hemoglobin level, and white blood cell count are not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
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