ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?
- A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
- B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
- C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
- D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.
2. You are preparing a patient for surgery and completing the preoperative checklist. Which of the following is not typically part of the preoperative checklist?
- A. Assessing for allergies
- B. Conducting the Time Out
- C. Ensuring that informed consent is signed
- D. Ensuring that the history and physical examination have been completed
Correct answer: B: Conducting the Time Out
Rationale: Conducting the Time Out is a crucial safety step that occurs immediately before the start of the procedure, but it is not usually part of the preoperative checklist. The Time Out involves verifying patient identity, correct procedure, correct site, and addressing any concerns or questions with the surgical team before proceeding. The other options, such as assessing for allergies, ensuring informed consent, and completing the history and physical examination, are typically included in the preoperative checklist to ensure patient safety and readiness for surgery.
3. At what age is binocularity, the ability to fixate on one visual field with both eyes simultaneously, typically achieved?
- A. 1 month
- B. 3 to 4 months
- C. 6 to 8 months
- D. 12 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Binocularity, the ability to fixate on one visual field with both eyes simultaneously, is typically achieved by the age of 3 to 4 months. Achieving binocularity at 1 month is too early for most infants as their visual system is still developing. Similarly, 6 to 8 months and 12 months are beyond the normal age range for achieving binocularity, and delayed achievement could indicate potential issues like strabismus, which may lead to visual impairment if not addressed.
4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Kidney dysfunction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.
5. A primiparous woman tells the nurse that she and her partner are highly reluctant to have their infant vaccinated, stating, “We've read that vaccines can potentially cause a lot of harm, so we're not sure we want to take that risk.” How should the nurse respond to this family's concerns?
- A. “Vaccinations are not without some risks, but these are far exceeded by the potential benefits they offer in preventing serious diseases.”
- B. “The potential risks of vaccinations have been investigated and determined to be minimal compared to the benefits of protecting your child from potentially life-threatening diseases.”
- C. “It is important to follow state laws regarding vaccines, but I understand your concerns. Let's discuss the specific risks and benefits of vaccines for your child.”
- D. “Vaccines indeed cause several serious adverse effects, but these are usually treated effectively, and the benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases far outweigh the risks.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When addressing concerns about vaccination, it is crucial to provide accurate information to help parents make informed decisions. Choice B is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the concerns of the family while emphasizing that the potential risks of vaccinations are minimal compared to the significant benefits of protecting the child from serious diseases. This response shows empathy towards the parents' concerns while also highlighting the importance of vaccination in preventing life-threatening illnesses. Choice A is incorrect because it does not emphasize the significant benefits of vaccination in preventing diseases, which may not effectively address the family's concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses more on state laws rather than addressing the family's specific concerns about vaccine safety. Choice D is incorrect as it may increase the family's anxiety by highlighting adverse effects without adequately emphasizing the benefits of vaccination in disease prevention.
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