Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has schizophrenia about thioridazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Report any sign of infection to the provider immediately
• B. Expect your blood pressure to increase
• C. Easy bruising may occur while taking this medication
• D. Muscle rigidity is an expected adverse effect during the first few days of therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any sign of infection to the provider immediately.' This instruction is essential for clients taking thioridazine or other antipsychotic medications. Thioridazine does not typically affect blood pressure or cause easy bruising. Muscle rigidity is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications. Reporting signs of infection promptly is crucial as antipsychotic medications can affect the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections help prevent complications and ensure proper medication management.

2. How can dehydration be assessed in an elderly patient?

• A. Checking skin turgor on the forearm
• B. Assessing for dry mucous membranes
• C. Checking for orthostatic hypotension
• D. Measuring daily weights

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing skin turgor by gently pinching the skin on the forearm is a reliable method to check for dehydration in elderly patients. When the skin is slow to return to its original position, it indicates dehydration. While assessing for dry mucous membranes is also important, checking skin turgor is a more direct method for dehydration assessment. Checking for orthostatic hypotension is more related to circulation status than dehydration. Measuring daily weights is helpful to monitor fluid balance but may not be as immediate or direct in detecting dehydration in elderly patients.

3. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?

• A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
• B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
• C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
• D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.

4. The nurse is assessing the patient for respiratory complications of immobility. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
• B. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.
• C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
• D. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Auscultating the entire lung region is the most appropriate action when assessing a patient for respiratory complications related to immobility. This approach helps the nurse identify any abnormalities in lung sounds, such as diminished breath sounds or the presence of secretions. Assessing the patient at regular intervals (choice B) is important but does not specifically address the respiratory assessment needed in this situation. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (choice C) may miss potential issues in other areas. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (choice D) is not the most effective way to assess lung sounds and identify respiratory complications.

5. A healthcare provider writes a medication order that seems excessively high for the patient's condition. What is the nurse's first step?

• A. Administer the medication immediately.
• B. Hold the medication and consult the provider.
• C. Reduce the dose without consulting the provider.
• D. Administer the medication after double-checking with another nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step for the nurse when encountering a medication order that appears excessively high for the patient's condition is to hold the medication and consult the provider. Administering the medication immediately (Choice A) without clarification could pose a risk to the patient's safety. Reducing the dose without consulting the provider (Choice C) is not recommended as it may lead to suboptimal treatment. Administering the medication after double-checking with another nurse (Choice D) is not sufficient; consulting the provider directly is crucial to ensure the accuracy and safety of the medication order.

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