ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about standards for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). Which of the following statements by an employee should the nurse manager identify as an example of the QSEN concept of quality improvement?
- A. We should start tracking how soon clients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
- B. We should involve our clients' partners in care planning as much as possible.
- C. We should be sure to log out of the computers immediately following documentation.
- D. We should provide change-of-shift report as a team, including the assistive personnel who assisted with care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Involving partners in care planning is a quality improvement strategy that aligns with QSEN principles. This choice reflects patient-centered care and collaboration, which are essential elements of quality improvement. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to quality improvement concepts. Tracking discharge times, logging out of computers, and providing change-of-shift reports are important practices but not specifically focused on quality improvement.
2. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?
- A. Rubella
- B. Pertussis
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.
3. While reviewing a client's chart, a nurse notices a discrepancy in the medication record. What should the nurse do?
- A. Correct the discrepancy and document the correction.
- B. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager.
- C. Ignore the discrepancy assuming it is a clerical error.
- D. Discuss the discrepancy with the client and adjust the records.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reporting medication discrepancies to the nurse manager is crucial to ensure patient safety and proper follow-up. The nurse manager is responsible for addressing medication errors and implementing necessary corrective actions. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the discrepancy without reporting it may lead to potential harm to the patient and violates professional standards. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the discrepancy increases the risk of medication errors going unresolved. Choice D is incorrect because discussing the discrepancy with the client before verifying the accuracy of the record can cause confusion and compromise patient safety.
4. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?
- A. Speech-language pathologist
- B. Occupational therapist
- C. Dietitian
- D. Pharmacy technician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.
5. What is the priority when assessing a patient for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Dorsiflex the foot and check for pain.
- B. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
- C. Check the skin for signs of redness.
- D. Perform a Doppler ultrasound scan.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the calf circumference of both legs when assessing a patient for possible DVT. An increase in calf circumference in one leg can indicate the presence of a DVT. Option A is incorrect because dorsiflexing the foot and checking for pain are not primary assessments for DVT. Option C is incorrect as redness of the skin may not always be present in cases of DVT. Option D is incorrect as performing a Doppler ultrasound scan is usually done after clinical assessment and to confirm the diagnosis, not as the initial priority assessment.
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